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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:

1. An equity manager holds a portfolio valued at $10m which has a beta of 1.1. He believes the market may see a dip in the coming weeks and wishes to eliminate his market exposure temporarily. Market index futures are available and the current futures notional on these is $50,000 per contract. Which of the following represents the best strategy for the manager to hedge his risk according to his views?

A) Buy 220 futures contracts
B) Liquidate his portfolio as soon as possible
C) Sell 200 futures contracts
D) Sell 220 futures contracts

2. Which of the following formulae correctly describes Component VaR. (p refers to the portfolio, and i is the i- th constituent of the portfolio. MVaR means Marginal VaR, and other symbols have their usual meanings.)

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I and II

3. If the loss given default is denoted by L, and the recovery rate by R, then which of the following represents the relationship between loss given default and the recovery rate?

A) L = 1 + R
B) R = 1 + L
C) R = 1 - L
D) R = 1 / L

4. Under the CreditPortfolio View model of credit risk, the conditional probability of default will be:

A) higher than the unconditional probability of default in an economic expansion
B) the same as the unconditional probability of default in an economic expansion
C) lower than the unconditional probability of default in an economic expansion
D) lower than the unconditional probability of default in an economic contraction

5. When modeling operational risk using separate distributions for loss frequency and loss severity, which of the following is true?

A) Loss severity and loss frequency distributions are considered as a bivariate model with positive correlation
B) Loss severity and loss frequency are considered independent
C) Loss severity and loss frequency are modeled using the same units of measurement
D) Loss severity and loss frequency are modeled as conditional probabilities

Solutions: